Of course another Open Era record that TMF just set was 4 consecutive years with at least 2 slam wins. Previous best by Borg(78-80), Sampras(93-95). The real question to be asked about this, since it involves Fed winning the Australian Open 3x, can we hold it against past champs like Lendl because the AO was played in December until 1987. Also Agassi skipped the AO the first 1/3 of his career because it wasn't considered a blue-chip slam. Was it considered a blue-chip only starting in 1994? Also if we're talking about slam legitimacy, didn't the French Open have reduced fields some years in the 1970s? Either we say all 4 slams are equal or they're not.