won the same number of slams in the said period?
Since 2012(if you want to include 2011 then include 2010 as well!), Nadal and Djokovic have won the same number of slams(4). Bear in mind that Nadal has been absent for large parts of this period. Even disregarding that, can someone be called dominant when all they've done is win the same number of slams in the said period?
Best player from 2012-2014 sure(on the basis of out of Slams exploits) but dominant player when your greatest rival has won the same number of slams? Impossible IMO.
Since 2012(if you want to include 2011 then include 2010 as well!), Nadal and Djokovic have won the same number of slams(4). Bear in mind that Nadal has been absent for large parts of this period. Even disregarding that, can someone be called dominant when all they've done is win the same number of slams in the said period?
Best player from 2012-2014 sure(on the basis of out of Slams exploits) but dominant player when your greatest rival has won the same number of slams? Impossible IMO.