Originally Posted by Nixer
The question was changed to "South American", so that's 2 tournaments in a row for 1 and 2.
Yeah but the non south american answer still stands Hidalgo said.
It makes more sense though for it to be back to back tournaments that the player in question has played not the top 2 players as they sometimes play different optional events.
So for instance say Giraldo beat Fed, and Nole this year in RG and Wimbledon he would work even if Fed played Halle, but say if he done it in Cincy and US Open but played Winston Salem inbetween then it doesn't work because he played a tournament inbetween so he didn't beat 1, and 2 in 2 straight tournaments for him.
That's the way the question makes most sense to me