Originally Posted by abraxas21
So why are the famines in India and Ireland (among others) done by the British empire not regarded in such fashion? There were similar policies, similar hatreds for the subject populations, similar exporting of food despite widespread famine and similar leaders who directly ordered this, Winston Churchill being one who is responsible for the death of millions and yet is regarded to this day with high acclaim in Britain.
Winnie ''directly ordered'' the Irish famine. Who knew? Maybe you are referring to another Winston Churchill who was actually alive at that time. The one I know might be accused of being responsible for the deaths of millions of Nazis, maybe.
As for India, the only famine that one might possibly relate to Winnie was in Bengal. It was during the war and there was a scarcity of rice after the Japanese took Burma. The Japanese fleet controlled the Bay of Bengal, so sending in food in ships was not possible. Is that the one?
So, if the core of your argument here is that Winston Churchill ''did'' famines in India and Ireland I think you need to start by identifying the actual famines that he caused.