Why didn't Roy Emerson turn professional? [Archive] - MensTennisForums.com

Why didn't Roy Emerson turn professional?

10-18-2010, 05:46 PM
Why didn't Roy Emerson turn professional?
They were discussing tennis on the radio the other day. They were comparing Federer and Nadal with the all-time greats. Someone said you cannot compare Emerson's record or Laver's grand slam record to Federer or Nadal. Because Laver went 6 years where he could not contest the Grand slams and Emerson won most of his because he stayed an amateur and not competing with Laver.
So why didn't Roy Emerson turn professional? Not enough money? Other reasons?

I didn't get where I am today selling ice creams tasting of bookends, pumice stone, and West Germany.

10-18-2010, 09:39 PM
Emerson was a "false amateur".

He got "allowance" (officially) from the LTAA but, as a matter of fact, he could make a decent living out of his 'amateur' (sic) career and travel all around the World (the ITF tried to prevent it with stupid rules like the 210 days abroad). The LTAA wanted to keep their best players for the Davis Cup, by 1963. I guess Laver's turning pro was a wake-up call. The same happened in Spain. The Spanish fed had to leave Gimeno in 1962 but managed to keep Santana in 1963. The likes of Pietrangeli, Stolle and probably also Fraser were other so-called 'false amateurs'.

12-25-2010, 07:22 AM
Roy did turn pro in 1968 but he got roughed up by the likes of Laver, Gonzales, Roswell, and the gang. But he did reach the Quarters of the French in 1968, the Quarters of the U.S. Open in 1969, and Wimbledon in 1970. He was more of a 4th rounder in slams in singles but he still won titles with Rod Laver in doubles.

But I do think he could have won some Grand Slam titles due to his athleticism if they allowed pros in 1960. But by 1968, he got old and the pros came.