Davis Cup question

03-06-2005, 07:33 PM
I don't understand how/why the defending champions would be playing their first tie abroad in Davis Cup.

How is it that the locations are selected? Is it by drawing, previous tie scores or how is that decided?

The US lost in the first round in 2003, had to play to qualify for the main draw and then played all except the last tie at home last year, yet the defending champion plays the first tie abroad this year. Is there a set system for this?

Action Jackson
03-06-2005, 07:36 PM
The home team is decided by where the teams played their previous matches.

Example Australia vs Argentina in the QF will be played in Australia, because the previous match was in Argentina and then it rotates.

When 2 nations haven't played it's decided by a coin toss and whoever wins plays at home first and then the venue rotates the next time those 2 teams meet.

03-06-2005, 07:38 PM
Ok, yeah that's kind of a weird system, so a team could come from Zonal to the DC draw for it's first time and in theory be able to play every tie at home to win a championship.


Action Jackson
03-06-2005, 07:40 PM
It doesn't matter it depends on the draw and there are seeded teams based on previous results.

Well Spain lost in the 1st round of 1999, had to qualify again and won in 2000. The system is quite easy to follow actually.

03-06-2005, 07:47 PM
Yeah, it's easy to follow, now that I understand, but like I said, a team that's never been in Davis Cup main draw before could play all four ties at home on the road to a championship if they had luck with the drawing and had played the teams away in the past and to me that's a bit weird.

Action Jackson
03-06-2005, 07:50 PM
Just because a team plays at home doesn't mean they win all the time.