Why is the bottom half first?? [Archive] - MensTennisForums.com

Why is the bottom half first??

Langers
01-13-2012, 12:27 PM
Djokovic, the defending champion, should kick off on day 1. Why not Craig?

duong
01-13-2012, 12:40 PM
I think that the scheme previous years was that Hewitt's half always started second, presumably to let his round 3 be on saturday.

It's also the case this year, whereas I thought it would be Tomic's half instead of Hewitt's.

Wimbledon is the only tournament where it depends on the defending champion. In US Open, it seems depending on Roddick (first half, also to play his R3 on saturday, as in US Open first round is in 3 days), in French Open it's tougher to know, although Tsonga's half started first last two years (Tsonga playing on first sunday)

barbadosan
01-13-2012, 12:44 PM
I think that the scheme previous years was that Hewitt's half always started second, presumably to let his round 3 be on saturday.

It's also the case this year, whereas I thought it would be Tomic's half instead of Hewitt's.

Wimbledon is the only tournament where it depends on the defending champion. In US Open, it seems depending on Roddick (first half, also to play his R3 on saturday, as in US Open first round is in 3 days), in French Open it's tougher to know, although Tsonga's half started first last two years (Tsonga playing on first sunday)

Yeh, I too thought the choice for Saturday play would have gone to Tomic instead of Hewitt this year

Looner
01-13-2012, 12:46 PM
Hopefully Verdasco takes care of that problem. Once he beats Tomic, there won't be a 'Tomic' half.

ossie
01-13-2012, 12:48 PM
why does this need a thread?