According to Noletards being down 15-19 is considered owning someone. They are a special, little bunch, aren't they?
I do not agree with the sentiment that Djokovic owns Nadal, just so that much is clear.
I do, however, consider it is possible to talk about ownage even when total numbers suggest otherwise. Consider Lendl vs. Connors. Lendl won 17 in a row. Now, that has got to be ownage, hasn't it? Only problem is, Connors won the first nine. Their H2H went from 0-9 via 5-13 to 22-13. At which point was it possible to talk about Lendl owning Connors? What about on 13-13, when he had eight in a row?