Why is the bottom half first?? - MensTennisForums.com
 
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post #1 of 5 (permalink) Old 01-13-2012, 01:27 PM Thread Starter
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Why is the bottom half first??

Djokovic, the defending champion, should kick off on day 1. Why not Craig?
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post #2 of 5 (permalink) Old 01-13-2012, 01:40 PM
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Re: Why is the bottom half first??

I think that the scheme previous years was that Hewitt's half always started second, presumably to let his round 3 be on saturday.

It's also the case this year, whereas I thought it would be Tomic's half instead of Hewitt's.

Wimbledon is the only tournament where it depends on the defending champion. In US Open, it seems depending on Roddick (first half, also to play his R3 on saturday, as in US Open first round is in 3 days), in French Open it's tougher to know, although Tsonga's half started first last two years (Tsonga playing on first sunday)

useless old guy
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post #3 of 5 (permalink) Old 01-13-2012, 01:44 PM
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Re: Why is the bottom half first??

Quote:
Originally Posted by duong View Post
I think that the scheme previous years was that Hewitt's half always started second, presumably to let his round 3 be on saturday.

It's also the case this year, whereas I thought it would be Tomic's half instead of Hewitt's.

Wimbledon is the only tournament where it depends on the defending champion. In US Open, it seems depending on Roddick (first half, also to play his R3 on saturday, as in US Open first round is in 3 days), in French Open it's tougher to know, although Tsonga's half started first last two years (Tsonga playing on first sunday)
Yeh, I too thought the choice for Saturday play would have gone to Tomic instead of Hewitt this year



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post #4 of 5 (permalink) Old 01-13-2012, 01:46 PM
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Re: Why is the bottom half first??

Hopefully Verdasco takes care of that problem. Once he beats Tomic, there won't be a 'Tomic' half.
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post #5 of 5 (permalink) Old 01-13-2012, 01:48 PM
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Re: Why is the bottom half first??

why does this need a thread?
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